Ag Construction Test Bank A-2014
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A handbook that sets minimum standards for electrical wiring is called the
a.
Electricians Wiring Book
c.
National Electrical Code
b.
Journeyman’s Handbook
d.
Workman’s Code
____ 2. A unit of measure of the rate of flow of electricity through a wire is known as
a.
amperage
c.
wattage
b.
voltage
d.
ohms
____ 3. A unit of measure of electrical pressure is known as
a.
amperage
c.
wattage
b.
voltage
d.
ohms
____ 4. A unit of measure of electricity that is derived from multiplying volts and amps is called
a.
PSI
c.
wattage
b.
resistance
d.
ohms
____ 5. The measure of resistance in a circuit to the flow of an electric current is called
a.
amperage
c.
wattage
b.
voltage
d.
ohms
____ 6. A complete path through which electricity flows is called a
a.
conduit
c.
conductor
b.
circuit
d.
fuse
____ 7. A safety device which opens the circuit by tripping a switch is called a
a.
circuit breaker
c.
breaker box
b.
fuse
d.
short circuit
____ 8. A material that permits electricity to flow freely is called a/an
a.
outlet
c.
volt
b.
circuit
d.
conductor
____ 9. A panel located inside the house from which every circuit branches is called a/an
a.
ground fault panel
c.
conductor panel
b.
service entrance panel
d.
outlet panel
____ 10. A laboratory that test electrical wiring materials and devices to assure that the products meet minimum safety
standards is called
a.
Underwriters Laboratory
c.
Journeyman’s Laboratory
b.
Electrical Laboratory
d.
Electrical Conductors Laboratory
____ 11. GFCI is an electrical device that stands for
a.
Ground Fault Circuit Information
c.
Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter
b.
Ground Fuse Circuit Interrupter
d.
Ground Feeder Circuit Interrupter
____ 12. Steel or plastic pipe used to protect electrical wires
a.
PVC
c.
conductors
b.
CPVC
d.
conduit
____ 13. An improper connection between hot and neutral wires or between hot wires:
a.
short circuit
c.
tripped circuit
b.
blown circuit
d.
branch circuit
____ 14. The circuit between the breaker box and one or more outlets:
a.
feeder circuit
c.
short circuit
b.
branch circuit
d.
fault circuit
____ 15. The circuit between one breaker box and another breaker box:
a.
feeder circuit
c.
short circuit
b.
branch circuit
d.
fault circuit
____ 16. What is the trip level of a GFCI?
a.
10 - 12 milliamperes
c.
4 - 6 milliamperes
b.
5 amperes
d.
120 volts
____ 17. How fast will a GFCI trip?
a.
2 seconds
c.
1/2 of a second
b.
5 seconds
d.
1/40 of second
____ 18. The type of cable used for direct burial of underground feeder wires is called
a.
Type NM
c.
Type UFC
b.
Type UF
d.
Type NMB
____ 19. Most residential wiring is made of a material called
a.
copper
c.
aluminum
b.
iron
d.
steel
____ 20. Most common size wire used to wire circuits in homes is
a.
# 14
c.
# 10
b.
# 12
d.
# 16
____ 21. AWG stands for
a.
American Wire Gauge
c.
American Wire Ground
b.
Alabama Wire Gauge
d.
Automatic With Ground
____ 22. An outlet box that can only hold one switch or one receptacle is called a/an:
a.
simple box
c.
single box
b.
one gang box
d.
independent box
____ 23. An outlet box that can hold two switches or two receptacles or one switch and one receptacle is called a/an:
a.
double box
c.
two gang box
b.
twin box
d.
multi-box
____ 24. Single-pole breakers are used for each _____ volt circuit.
a.
240
c.
75
b.
500`
d.
120
____ 25. Double-pole breakers are used for each _____ volt circuit.
a.
240
c.
75
b.
500
d.
120
____ 26. Which of the following items would all operate off of 120 volts.
a.
TV, radio, clothes dryer, microwave and dishwasher
b.
TV, radio, hair dryer, microwave and dishwasher
c.
computer, lamp, electric razor, ceiling fan and 80 gallon hot water heater
d.
coffee maker, blender, DVD player, electric razor and large heat pump
____ 27. A single-pole switch has
a.
one conductor terminal
c.
three conductor terminals
b.
two conductor terminals
d.
four conductor terminals
____ 28. A three-way switch has
a.
one conductor terminal
c.
three conductor terminals
b.
two conductor terminals
d.
four conductor terminals
____ 29. A four-way switch has
a.
one conductor terminal
c.
three conductor terminals
b.
two conductor terminals
d.
four conductor terminals
____ 30. A double-pole switch is used for
a.
120 volt circuits
c.
large air-conditioners
b.
240 volt circuits
d.
all outside switches
____ 31. Type NM cable stands for:
a.
non-metallic
c.
non-metric
b.
new metal
d.
non-matter
____ 32. Which color of wire is called the “neutral” wire?
a.
red
c.
black
b.
white
d.
bare
____ 33. Which color of wire is called the “hot” wire?
a.
blue
c.
black
b.
white
d.
bare
____ 34. Which color of wire is considered to be an “additional hot” wire?
a.
red
c.
black
b.
white
d.
bare
____ 35. The purpose of the “bare” wire is for:
a.
energy
c.
wiring directly to the common terminal
b.
conducting electricity during the normal
operation of the circuit
d.
safety
____ 36. A 12-2 WG cable would have the following:
a.
one black wire, one white wire and one
bare wire
c.
one blue wire, one white wire and one
bare wire
b.
one red wire, one white wire and one bare
wire
d.
one black wire, one red wire and one
white wire
____ 37. A 12-3 WG cable would have the following:
a.
one blue wire, one red wire, one white
wire and one bare wire
c.
one black wire, one red wire, one white
wire and one bare wire
b.
one black wire, one red wire, one white
wire and one blue wire
d.
one black wire, one blue wire, one white
wire and one bare wire
____ 38. Which two colors of wires would be used to wire a single-pole switch?
a.
black and white
c.
black and red
b.
red and white
d.
red and green
____ 39. Which three colors of wires would be used to wire 3-way switches?
a.
red, black and green
c.
red, black and white
b.
red, black and blue
d.
black, white and blue
____ 40. Which three colors of wires would be used to wire 4-way switches?
a.
red, black and green
c.
red, black and white
b.
red, black and blue
d.
black, white and blue
____ 41. Which type switch would be used to control a light from only one location?
a.
single-pole switch
c.
3- way switch
b.
2-way switch
d.
4-way switch
____ 42. Which type switch would be used to control a light from two different locations?
a.
single-pole switch
c.
3-way switch
b.
2-way switch
d.
4-way switch
____ 43. Which type switches are used in pairs?
a.
single-pole switches
c.
3-way switches
b.
2-way switches
d.
4-way switches
____ 44. If a light is being controlled from three different locations, which combination of switches would be used?
a.
three 3-way switches
c.
one 3-way and two 4-way switches
b.
one single-pole and two 4-way switches
d.
two 3-way and one 4-way switch
____ 45. If a light is being controlled from five different locations, which combination of switches would be used?
a.
three 3-way and two 4-way switches
c.
one single-pole and four 4-way switches
b.
two 3-way and three 4-way switches
d.
five single-pole switches
____ 46. The black wire coming from the breaker box should be connected to which terminal on a 3-way switch?
a.
brass
c.
neutral
b.
silver
d.
common
____ 47. The black wire coming from the breaker box should be connected to which terminal on a single-pole switch?
a.
it doesn’t matter
c.
neutral
b.
silver
d.
common
____ 48. A 240 volt grain auger motor draws 17 amps under load, what size breaker should you install?
a.
single pole 20 amp
c.
double pole 20 amp
b.
single pole 30 amp
d.
double pole 15 amp
____ 49. What is the recommended minimum size or capacity of a residential electrical service?
a.
150 amps
c.
200 amps
b.
100 amps
d.
400 amps
____ 50. Which of the following materials is considered to be a good insulator?
a.
water
c.
wire
b.
a GFCI
d.
rubber
____ 51. An instrument used to measure voltage values is called a/an
a.
voltmeter
c.
volt reader
b.
current reader
d.
volt sensor
____ 52. A regulatory device which “steps up” or “steps down” voltage?
a.
diode
c.
rectifier
b.
transformer
d.
voltmeter
____ 53. A point on an electrical device where connections may be made?
a.
tab
c.
terminal
b.
groove
d.
toggle
____ 54. A station in a power transmission system at which electric power is transformed to a conveniently used form?
a.
substation
c.
transtation
b.
electric station
d.
power station
____ 55. A connection of two or more conductors is called a/an:
a.
terminal
c.
joint
b.
lug
d.
splice
____ 56. An excessive demand on an electric circuit is called a/an:
a.
overdemand
c.
overload
b.
overwork
d.
resistance
____ 57. An electrical instrument used to measure circuit resistance is called a/an:
a.
multimeter
c.
voltmeter
b.
ampmeter
d.
ohmmeter
____ 58. An electrical box which is used to bring the wires to the location where an electrical device is installed is
called a/an:
a.
junction box
c.
power box
b.
outlet box
d.
accessory box
____ 59. An electrical box with a blank cover used to contain splices of a circuit is called a/an:
a.
junction box
c.
terminal box
b.
outlet box
d.
splice box
____ 60. The main circuit which supplies all other circuits is called the
a.
main
c.
transformer
b.
supplier
d.
head
____ 61. A unit of measurement for the flow of light.
a.
wattage
c.
amperage
b.
voltage
d.
lumen
____ 62. One thousandth of an ampere can also be called
a.
multiampere
c.
1,000 amperes
b.
milliampere
d.
.01 amperes
____ 63. A wire 4-6 inches in length used to connect a portion of a circuit is called a/an:
a.
extension wire
c.
jumper wire
b.
extra wire
d.
junction wire
____ 64. The term expressing frequency or cycles per second?
a.
volt
c.
amp
b.
hertz
d.
watt
____ 65. A flexible wire that can be pushed through conduit and around bends that is used to pull electrical wire
through conduit?
a.
electrical cable
c.
wire puller
b.
conduit puller
d.
fish tape
____ 66. A threaded sleeve used to join the ends of two lengths of conduit?
a.
coupling
c.
pipe connector
b.
jointer sleeve
d.
threaded connector
____ 67. The ability of a current to flow continuously through a conductor?
a.
free energy
c.
continuous flow
b.
continuity
d.
constant flow
____ 68. The letters that refer to the quantity of heat required to raise one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit is
called:
a.
AWG
c.
BTU
b.
NEMA
d.
GFCI
____ 69. BTU stands for
a.
Between The Unground
c.
Battery Transformer Unit
b.
Boston Torque Unit
d.
British Thermal Unit
____ 70. A flexible metal protective covering enclosing electrical conductors is called:
a.
armored cable
c.
metallic cable
b.
conduit
d.
steel cable
____ 71. A beginner in a trade is called a/an:
a.
tradesman
c.
apprentice
b.
skilled worker
d.
journeyman
____ 72. A tradesperson who has served his or her apprenticeship and is qualified to perform the skills of the trade is
called a/an:
a.
tradesman
c.
apprentice
b.
skilled worker
d.
journeyman
____ 73. AC stands for:
a.
Alternative Current
c.
Amp Current
b.
Aternating Current
d.
Alternating Cycles
____ 74. DC stands for:
a.
Direct Current
c.
Direct Continuity
b.
Diode Current
d.
Diverse Cycles
____ 75. When attaching a conductor to a device terminal, the curved hook on the conductor must be connected:
a.
so that it has less than a 2/3 wrap
c.
clockwise onto the terminal
b.
counterclockwise onto the terminal
d.
so that it overlaps
____ 76. Conductors are spliced together by twisting the wires together in a ____________ direction.
a.
full
c.
counterclockwise
b.
non-stop
d.
clockwise
____ 77. As a general rule, the amount of insulation that should be stripped off of the wire to make a proper connection
is:
a.
7/8 inch
c.
5 inches
b.
1/8 inch
d.
1 foot
____ 78. Which of the following materials is not something from which electrical boxes are made?
a.
metal
c.
fiberglass
b.
plastic
d.
rubber
____ 79. Which of the following is not a common electrical box shape?
a.
round
c.
triangle
b.
rectangle
d.
octagon
____ 80. Which of the following shapes for electrical boxes is used only for fixtures such as ceiling lights?
a.
round
c.
triangle
b.
rectangle
d.
octagon
____ 81. Which of the following shapes for electrical boxes is preferred for wall receptacles and switches?
a.
round
c.
triangle
b.
rectangle
d.
octagon
____ 82. Metal boxes usually have a _______________ finish.
a.
glossy
c.
bright
b.
slick
d.
galvanized
____ 83. Part of an electrical box that may be removed only to provide an opening for a cable, conduit or fitting?
a.
tabs
c.
knockouts
b.
inserts
d.
junction
____ 84. The purpose of electrical boxes having removable sides is so that they can be:
a.
broken down
c.
ganged
b.
stored easily
d.
easily accessible
____ 85. The electrical symbol “S” represents a:
a.
single-pole switch
c.
solid switch
b.
safety switch
d.
special switch
____ 86. The electrical symbol S2 represents a:
a.
single-pole switch
c.
double-pole switch
b.
two-way switch
d.
two sided switch
____ 87. The electrical symbol S3 represents a:
a.
three-way service
c.
three-way solenoid
b.
three-way signal
d.
three-way switch
____ 88. Which of the following is required to have in a bathroom?
a.
breaker box
c.
wall heater
b.
GFCI
d.
water heater
____ 89. Which of the following locations is a requirement to have a GFCI installed?
a.
shower
c.
outside
b.
dining room
d.
bedroom
____ 90. Which of the following locations is a requirement to have a GFCI installed?
a.
living room
c.
hallway
b.
crawl spaces
d.
finished basements
____ 91. Which of the following locations is a requirement to have a GFCI installed?
a.
workout room
c.
attic
b.
study room
d.
within 6 feet of kitchen sink
____ 92. Which of the following locations is a requirement to have a GFCI installed?
a.
living room
c.
within 10 feet of a fireplace
b.
unfinished basements
d.
storm shelter
____ 93. An electrical device used in fluorescent fixtures that furnishes the necessary starting and operating current to
the bulb.
a.
solenoid
c.
relay
b.
rectifier
d.
ballast
____ 94. An octagon electrical box would have _____ sides.
a.
8
c.
5
b.
6
d.
4
____ 95. Which of the following would not be covered by the NEC?
a.
the size wire to use
c.
the number of receptacles used in a room
b.
the color of switches to use
d.
the size of conduit to use
____ 96. Which of the following would not be covered by the NEC?
a.
the type of tool used to strip wires
c.
the locations where GFCI’s are required
b.
the height of the main disconnect
d.
the amount of voltage drop that is
permitted in a circuit
____ 97. The decrease in voltage in a circuit is known as
a.
decreased voltage
c.
voltage drop
b.
dropped voltage
d.
current depletion
____ 98. Which of the following tools would be the least used when wiring circuits?
a.
hammer
c.
wire strippers
b.
screwdriver
d.
ratchet and socket
____ 99. Which of the following tools would be the least used when wiring circuits?
a.
drill
c.
cable rippers
b.
nut driver
d.
needle nose pliers
____ 100. An overhead electrical line that runs form the transformer at the utility pole to a building is called the:
a.
service drop
c.
primary line
b.
incoming line
d.
transformer line
____ 101. PVC stands for:
a.
polyvinyl calcium
c.
polyvinyl chloride
b.
polyvinyl copper
d.
polyethylene chloride
____ 102. CPVC stands for:
a.
covered polyvinyl chloride
c.
chlorinated polyethylene chloride
b.
coated polyvinyl chloride
d.
chlorinated polyvinyl chloride
____ 103. PE pipe stands for:
a.
polyethylene
c.
pipe extension
b.
polyevergreen
d.
pipe elbow
____ 104. ABS pipe stands for:
a.
Acrylonitrile Black Sleeve
c.
Acrylonitrile Butadiene Solder
b.
Acrylonitrile Brass Sleeve
d.
Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene
____ 105. PEX pipe stands for:
a.
polyethylene with cross-links
c.
polyethylene x-ray
b.
polyethylene xanthone
d.
polyethylene xerox
____ 106. In plumbing, ID stands for:
a.
has no meaning
c.
inside diameter
b.
inside die
d.
internal diameter
____ 107. In plumbing, OD stands for:
a.
has no meaning
c.
outside diameter
b.
outside die
d.
outward diameter
____ 108. Tape use on threaded fittings to prevent water leakage at pipe connections is called:
a.
sealant tape
c.
black tape
b.
teflon tape
d.
water tape
____ 109. PVC pipe is ________ in color.
a.
white
c.
beige
b.
red
d.
black
____ 110. CPVC pipe is ________ in color.
a.
white
c.
beige
b.
red
d.
black
____ 111. PVC pipe is used for:
a.
drinking water only
c.
hot water only
b.
hot or cold water
d.
cold water only
____ 112. CPVC is used for:
a.
drinking water only
c.
hot water only
b.
hot or cold water
d.
cold water only
____ 113. Which of the following types of pipe does not require glue to be used?
a.
PVC
c.
PE
b.
CPVC
d.
ABS
____ 114. Which of the following types of pipe is black in color:
a.
ABS
c.
PEX
b.
galvanized
d.
PVC
____ 115. Which of the following types of pipe would be the most flexible?
a.
ABS
c.
PVC
b.
PE
d.
CPVC
____ 116. Which of the following types of pipe would require soldering?
a.
galvanized
c.
soft copper
b.
steel
d.
hard copper
____ 117. Which of the following types of pipe can be flared?
a.
galvanized
c.
soft copper
b.
steel
d.
hard copper
____ 118. Which of the following types of pipe can use compression fittings?
a.
galvanized
c.
soft copper
b.
steel
d.
hard copper
____ 119. Which of the following statements is not true about ABS pipe?
a.
it used for drinking water
c.
it is used for vent piping
b.
it is used for drains
d.
it is black in color
____ 120. DWV pipe stands for:
a.
ditch, waste and vent
c.
drain, weather and vent
b.
ditch, weather and vent
d.
drain, waste and vent
____ 121. Removing burrs from the inside edge and the end of pipe is known as:
a.
reaming
c.
grinding
b.
deburring
d.
sanding
____ 122. Fittings containing a device that regulates flow or permits flow in only one direction are called:
a.
ferrules
c.
valves
b.
unions
d.
sensors
____ 123. A projecting rim or collar on a pipe or fitting to secure it in place is called a/an:
a.
bushing
c.
adapter
b.
flange
d.
sleeve
____ 124. A tubelike part that fits over another part is called a:
a.
nipple
c.
flange
b.
rim
d.
sleeve
____ 125. A bushing used on copper tubing for sealing a compression fitting is called a:
a.
rim
c.
flange
b.
ferrule
d.
sleeve
____ 126. Which of the following types of galvanized fittings would have a 90 degree angle and have male threads on
one end and female threads on the other end?
a.
90 degree elbow
c.
90 degree tapered elbow
b.
90 degree street elbow
d.
90 degree bushing elbow
____ 127. Which of the following types of galvanized fittings would allow two different size pipes to be joined together
and has male threads on one end and female threads on the other end?
a.
union
c.
bushing
b.
reducer
d.
coupling
____ 128. Which of the following types of galvanized fittings would allow two different size pipes to be joined together
and has female threads on both ends?
a.
union
c.
bushing
b.
reducer
d.
coupling
____ 129. Which of the following types of plastic fittings has threads on one end and has to be glued on the other end?
a.
adapter
c.
coupling
b.
bushing
d.
union
____ 130. Which of the following types of plumbing fittings has male threads and is used to close the end of a pipe?
a.
plug
c.
stopper
b.
cap
d.
bushing
____ 131. Which of the following types of plumbing fittings has female threads and is used to close the end of
galvanized pipe?
a.
plug
c.
stopper
b.
cap
d.
bushing
____ 132. A plumbing fitting used to connect two pieces of similar plastic pipe is called a:
a.
coupling
c.
cap
b.
joint
d.
clamp
____ 133. A plumbing fitting used to connect two pieces of similar galvanized pipe is called a/an:
a.
ferrule
c.
union
b.
flange
d.
plug
____ 134. Which of the following is true about a plumbing fitting that has male threads?
a.
it has more strength
c.
it has threads on the inside
b.
it is used only in galvanized pipe
d.
it has threads on the outside
____ 135. Which of the following is true about a plumbing fitting that has female threads?
a.
it has less strength
c.
it has threads on the inside
b.
it is used only in galvanized pipe
d.
it has threads on the outside
____ 136. Galvanized pipe is coated with ________ to prevent rust.
a.
copper
c.
plastic
b.
calcium
d.
zinc
____ 137. What is the purpose of the coating on galvanized pipe?
a.
to keep it from bending
c.
to keep the sun from damaging it
b.
to make it easier to work with
d.
to keep it from rusting
____ 138. A short piece of galvanized pipe threaded at each end is called a/an:
a.
extension
c.
nipple
b.
fitting
d.
pipe
____ 139. Which type tool is used when making a bell shape on the end of copper tubing?
a.
flaring tool
c.
flange tool
b.
bell tool
d.
needle nose pliers
____ 140. When threading steel pipe, which of the following should be used to reduce heat?
a.
oil
c.
air
b.
water
d.
WD-40
____ 141. What is the purpose of applying a paste or flux to copper pipe and the fitting before soldering?
a.
to make the process easier
c.
to make the pipe last longer
b.
to make the process faster
d.
to make the solder penetrate the joint
____ 142. In plumbing, the process of joining two pieces of metal using heat and the application of another metal of a
different composition is called:
a.
manufacturing
c.
soldering
b.
pipe joining
d.
welding
____ 143. When soldering copper pipe that is going to be used for drinking water, which of the following types of solder
should be used?
a.
50% lead and 50% tin
c.
100% lead
b.
60% lead and 40% tin
d.
lead-free
____ 144. Why must copper pipe be cleaned before soldering?
a.
to make it easier to work with
c.
to make it look better
b.
so solder will stick
d.
to increase the water flow
____ 145. Which of the following is not recommended to be used when cleaning copper pipe before soldering?
a.
steel wool
c.
emery cloth
b.
grinder
d.
special wire brushes
____ 146. When cleaning copper before soldering, what should be cleaned?
a.
the outside of the pipe and the inside of
the fitting
c.
only the inside of both pipe and fitting
b.
the inside of the pipe and the outside of
the fitting
d.
only the outside of both pipe and fitting
____ 147. When applying heat for soldering copper, which of the following should be done?
a.
apply heat to the pipe only
c.
apply heat to the pipe and fitting
b.
appley heat to the fitting only
d.
apply heat to the solder
____ 148. Which of the following types of pipe does not require a primer before glueing?
a.
ABS
c.
CPVC
b.
PVC
d.
they all require a primer
____ 149. Which of the following terms is used to describe the wall thickness of plastic pipe?
a.
schedule
c.
gauge
b.
diameter
d.
depth
____ 150. Which of the following types of PVC pipe is thicker?
a.
SCH 20
c.
SCH 60
b.
SCH 40
d.
SCH 80
____ 151. Which type of plastic pipe is recommended for residential plumbing?
a.
SCH 10
c.
SCH 60
b.
SCH 40
d.
SCH 80
____ 152. Water lines should be buried below the ________ ________ so they will not freeze.
a.
top soil
c.
grass roots
b.
frost line
d.
soft soil
____ 153. The correct name for a vertical drainpipe that receives the discharge from toilets is called a:
a.
soil stack
c.
toilet drain
b.
drain pipe
d.
sewer pipe
____ 154. The correct name for a vertical drainpipe that receives the discharge from anything other than toilets?
a.
soil stack
c.
waste stack
b.
drain pipe
d.
sewer pipe
____ 155. Roof ________ are placed around stacks where they pass through a roof.
a.
clamps
c.
collars
b.
flanges
d.
coverings
____ 156. The purpose of a roof flange around stacks is to:
a.
support the top of the stack
c.
keep rain out of the stack
b.
insulate the stack from the building
structure
d.
keep rain from entering the building
through the stack hole
____ 157. Most Bureau of Health regulations require a minimum of ____________ slope for main house drains.
a.
1 inch per foot
c.
3/4 inch per foot
b.
1 inch per yard
d.
1/4 inch per foot
____ 158. After digging a trench to bury a water line, it must be refilled. This is known as:
a.
replacing soil
c.
recovering
b.
filling in
d.
backfilling
____ 159. A fitting installed in a drain pipe in order to have easy access to the pipe to clean out obstructions is called
a/an:
a.
obstruction fitting
c.
insert fitting
b.
cleanout fitting
d.
drain fitting
____ 160. A plumbing fitting installed in the drain system to prevent sewer gases from entering the building is called a:
a.
check valve
c.
trap
b.
meter
d.
blockage
____ 161. Plumbing traps are of which two types:
a.
K and N
c.
P and S
b.
K and S
d.
K and P
____ 162. A receptacle placed in the waste pipes of sinks to separate and retain grease from the water is called a:
a.
grease trap
c.
grease dump
b.
grease basin
d.
waste trap
____ 163. A flexible auger used to remove clogs in plumbing drains is called a:
a.
twist
c.
plunger
b.
declogger
d.
snake
____ 164. The type tool that is best to use when tightening plumbing fittings that have flat sides is the:
a.
monkey wrench
c.
lineman’s pliers
b.
pipe wrench
d.
groove joint pliers
____ 165. They type tool that is best to use when tightening plumbing fittings that are easily damaged is the:
a.
monkey wrench
c.
lineman’s pliers
b.
pipe wrench
d.
slip joint pliers
____ 166. The type tool that would be most useful for grabbing and holding galvanized pipe?
a.
monkey wrench
c.
adjustable wrench
b.
pipe wrench
d.
lineman’s pliers
____ 167. Which of the following is not true about PEX pipe?
a.
quicker to install than plastic pipe
c.
must be glued
b.
purchased in rolls instead of joints
d.
when water freezes, the pipe will expand
preventing breakage
____ 168. When cutting copper or galvanized pipe with a hand pipe cutter, the handle should be tightened about _____
turn for each revolution around the pipe.
a.
1/8
c.
1/2
b.
1/4
d.
1
____ 169. Which type of pipe can be bent easily?
a.
copper tubing
c.
galvanized
b.
rigid copper
d.
PVC
____ 170. Which type of pipe is easiest to repair?
a.
copper tubing that must be flared
c.
galvanized
b.
rigid copper
d.
PVC
____ 171. Before a private sewerage system can be installed on a particular site, the ________ Department must approve
the installation and issue a building permit.
a.
Police
c.
Resource
b.
Chamber of Commerce
d.
Health
____ 172. In order for a building permit to be granted, the soil upon which a sewerage system is to be installed must
pass a __________ test.
a.
soil
c.
disposal
b.
water
d.
percolation
____ 173. What is the actual size of a 2 x 4?
a.
1 1/2 x 3 1/2
c.
1 1/2 x 3 1/4
b.
1 3/4 x 3 1/2
d.
1 1/2 x 3 3/4
____ 174. What is the actual size of a 2 x 8?
a.
1 1/2 x 7 1/2
c.
1 3/4 x 7 1/4
b.
1 1/2 x 7 1/4
d.
1 3/4 x 7 1/2
____ 175. What is the actual size of a 1 x 6?
a.
1/2 x 5 1/2
c.
1/2 x 5 1/4
b.
3/4 x 5 1/2
d.
1/2 x 5 3/4
____ 176. What is the actual size of a 1 x 12?
a.
1/2 x 11 1/4
c.
3/4 x 11 1/4
b.
1/2 x 11 1/2
d.
3/4 x 11 1/2
____ 177. What is the nominal size of a 2 x 4?
a.
1 1/2 x 3 1/2
c.
1 1/2 x 3 3/4
b.
1 3/4 x 3 1/2
d.
2 x 4
____ 178. What is the nominal size of a 1 x 8?
a.
3/4 x 7 1/4
c.
1/2 x 7 1/4
b.
3/4 x 7 1/2
d.
1 x 8
____ 179. How many board feet in a 2 x 4 x 12?
a.
12
c.
8
b.
96
d.
6
____ 180. How many board feet in a 2 x 6 x 10?
a.
120
c.
8
b.
10
d.
6
____ 181. How many board feet in a 1 x 4 x 6?
a.
2
c.
10
b.
24
d.
6
____ 182. How many board feet in 5 pieces of 2 x 4 x 12?
a.
96
c.
12
b.
480
d.
40
____ 183. How many board feet in 10 pieces of 2 x 6 x 8?
a.
80
c.
96
b.
8
d.
960
____ 184. What is the price of 10 pieces of 2 x 4 x 12 if the sawmill price is $250.00/mbdft?
a.
$2.00
c.
$80.00
b.
$240.00
d.
$20.00
____ 185. What is the price of 5 pieces of 2 x 6 x 10 if the sawmill price is $200.00/mbdft?
a.
$1.00
c.
$15.00
b.
$10.00
d.
$100.00
____ 186. The unit of measure used to designate the length of most nails is the word ________.
a.
diameter
c.
gauge
b.
caliber
d.
penny
____ 187. How long is a 20d nail?
a.
2”
c.
4”
b.
3”
d.
5”
____ 188. How long is a 16d nail?
a.
3”
c.
2 1/2”
b.
3 1/2”
d.
4”
____ 189. How long is a 10d nail?
a.
2 1/2”
c.
3 1/2”
b.
2”
d.
3”
____ 190. How long is a 8d nail?
a.
2”
c.
2 1/2 “
b.
2 1/4”
d.
3”
____ 191. Which type nail would be used in masonry materials?
a.
duplex nail
c.
finishing nail
b.
plaster board nail
d.
cut nail
____ 192. Which type nail has two heads?
a.
box nail
c.
cut nail
b.
duplex nail
d.
roofing nail
____ 193. Which type nail has the smallest head?
a.
roofing nail
c.
finishing nail
b.
plaster board nail
d.
common nail
____ 194. Which type nail would be used for light household construction?
a.
box nail
c.
cut nail
b.
common nail
d.
lead head nail
____ 195. Which type screw head would have the same shape on top of the head as it does underneath the head?
a.
oval
c.
pan
b.
round
d.
flat
____ 196. Which one of the following are screws not classified by:
a.
penny
c.
length
b.
gauge
d.
type material made from
____ 197. Which measurement is bigger?
a.
3/4”
c.
1/4”
b.
7/8”
d.
1/2”
____ 198. Which measurement is bigger?
a.
9/16”
c.
5/8”
b.
1/4”
d.
5/16”
____ 199. Which measurement is bigger?
a.
15/32”
c.
1/4”
b.
5/16”
d.
7/16”
____ 200. Which screw is bigger?
a.
6 gauge
c.
10 gauge
b.
8 gauge
d.
12 gauge
____ 201. Screw gauge refers to the ________ of the screw?
a.
type
c.
diameter
b.
threads
d.
length
____ 202. Which of the following hand tools would be best suited for cutting the sole plate out of a doorway in a wall
section?
a.
miter saw
c.
circular saw
b.
hand saw
d.
coping saw
____ 203. What is another name for a framing square?
a.
builder’s square
c.
try square
b.
combination square
d.
carpenter’s square
____ 204. What is the longest part of a framing square called?
a.
heel
c.
blade
b.
handle
d.
tongue
____ 205. What is the shortest part of a framing square called?
a.
heel
c.
blade
b.
handle
d.
tongue
____ 206. What is the corner of a framing square called?
a.
heel
c.
blade
b.
handle
d.
tongue
____ 207. How long is the blade of a standard framing square?
a.
24”
c.
16”
b.
20”
d.
12”
____ 208. How long is the tongue of a standard framing square?
a.
24”
c.
16”
b.
20”
d.
12”
____ 209. How wide is the blade of a standard framing square?
a.
2 1/2”
c.
1 1/2”
b.
2”
d.
1”
____ 210. How wide is the tongue of a standard framing square?
a.
2 1/2”
c.
1 1/2”
b.
2”
d.
1”
____ 211. Which of the following would be found on a standard framing square?
a.
nail sizes
c.
lumber sizes
b.
screw gauges
d.
length of common rafter per foot run
____ 212. Which of the following saws would not be able to cut all the way through a 1 x 12?
a.
sliding compound miter saw
c.
back saw
b.
hand saw
d.
coping saw
____ 213. Which of the following squares would be best suited to layout the slope of a roof on a 2 x 4?
a.
try square
c.
speed square
b.
T square
d.
combination square
____ 214. Which of the following types of hammers has a straighter claw?
a.
ball peen hammer
c.
ripping claw hammer
b.
blacksmith’s hammer
d.
curved claw hammer
____ 215. Which of the following types of saws is used with a miter box?
a.
back saw
c.
coping saw
b.
hand saw
d.
hack saw
____ 216. What are the two types of hand saws?
a.
ripping and crosscut
c.
crosscut and straight cut
b.
ripping and straight cut
d.
metal and wood
____ 217. The slit that is made in a piece of wood when cutting all the way through with a saw is called a:
a.
groove
c.
notch
b.
kerf
d.
dado
____ 218. A tool that is used to transfer angles is called a:
a.
combination square
c.
T bevel
b.
try square
d.
awl
____ 219. Which saw would be used when cutting a hole in sheetrock?
a.
coping saw
c.
back saw
b.
hand saw
d.
keyhole saw
____ 220. Which type tool would be used to drill a hole in a door for a door knob?
a.
wood bit
c.
hole saw
b.
spade bit
d.
countersink bit
____ 221. What is the proper name of the tool that is used to drive a nail below the surface of the wood?
a.
nail driver
c.
nail guide
b.
nail set
d.
nail punch
____ 222. Which of the following is not another name for a paddle bit?
a.
power bit
c.
butterfly bit
b.
spade bit
d.
twist bit
____ 223. The end of the hammer that makes contact with the nail is called the ________.
a.
head
c.
cheek
b.
poll
d.
face
____ 224. The size of a claw hammer is determined by the:
a.
weight of the head
c.
length of the handle
b.
weight of the entire hammer
d.
length of the head
____ 225. Which of the following tools would be used to check structural members to see if they are horizontal or
vertical?
a.
framing square
c.
jointer plane
b.
level
d.
plumb bob
____ 226. Which of the following squares has an adjustable sliding blade?
a.
combination square
c.
rafter square
b.
speed square
d.
try square
____ 227. Which word describes something that is exactly vertical?
a.
even
c.
plumb
b.
upright
d.
level
____ 228. Which word describes something that is exactly horizontal?
a.
even
c.
plumb
b.
flat
d.
level
____ 229. Which size nail is the most common for nailing floor joist, studs, rafters and ceiling joist?
a.
8d
c.
16d
b.
10d
d.
20d
____ 230. ________ carry the weight of the building across door and window openings.
a.
Trimmers
c.
Studs
b.
Headers
d.
Rafters
____ 231. Header length is equal to the rough opening plus the width of _____ trimmers.
a.
2
c.
4
b.
3
d.
6
____ 232. To make the thickness of the header match the thickness of the wall, a _____ piece of plywood is inserted
between the two outside pieces.
a.
1/4”
c.
3/4”
b.
1/2”
d.
1”
____ 233. The studs that run the entire height of the wall are called:
a.
full studs
c.
trimmer studs
b.
cripple studs
d.
complete studs
____ 234. The studs that support the weight of the header and are located at each end of the header are called:
a.
full studs
c.
trimmer studs
b.
cripple studs
d.
complete studs
____ 235. The studs that are positioned above a header or below a window sill are called:
a.
full studs
c.
trimmer studs
b.
cripple studs
d.
complete studs
____ 236. Driving a nail at an angle in order to permit it to penetrate into a second framing member is known as:
a.
angle nailing
c.
toenailing
b.
force driving
d.
slant driving
____ 237. To add support under ceiling joists and rafters and to also help tie the wall frames together, the top plate of the
walls should be _______________.
a.
nailed more
c.
made of 2 x 6’s
b.
doubled
d.
glued
____ 238. OSB stands for:
a.
orientated strand board
c.
official stud board
b.
off set board
d.
over size board
____ 239. When installing sheathing on walls, the nails along the edge of the sheathing should be placed approximately
_____ apart.
a.
3”
c.
10”
b.
6”
d.
12”
____ 240. When installing sheathing on walls, the nails in the middle of the sheathing should be placed approximately
_____ apart.
a.
3”
c.
10”
b.
6”
d.
12”
____ 241. What is the material called that covers the exterior of the walls to prevent air form entering or leaving a
building through the cracks of the walls?
a.
insulation
c.
mortar
b.
sheathing
d.
house wrap
____ 242. When studs are placed 16” O.C., what does the O.C. stand for?
a.
on course
c.
on center
b.
over center
d.
off center
____ 243. The bottom plate of a wall section is known as the:
a.
sole plate
c.
bottom board
b.
bottom plate
d.
bottom piece
____ 244. The first layout to be marked on the plates is the ________ spacing.
a.
trimmer stud
c.
cripple stud
b.
regular/full stud
d.
window
____ 245. What type mark is made on the plates of a wall to designate where full or regular studs are to be installed?
a.
F
c.
X
b.
R
d.
F/R
____ 246. A number related to the efficiency of an insulating material.
a.
12
c.
R value
b.
16
d.
I value
____ 247. Horizontal roof members used to support rafters between the plate and ridge board are called:
a.
purlins
c.
chords
b.
supports
d.
stringers
____ 248. The horizontal line at the junction of the top edges of two roof surfaces is called the:
a.
plate
c.
sill
b.
chord
d.
ridge
____ 249. An opening formed by framing members is known as the:
a.
opening space
c.
rough opening
b.
door and window opening
d.
rough space
____ 250. Boards or prefabricated panels that are attached to the exterior of studs or rafters of a structure is called:
a.
siding
c.
exterior panels
b.
sheathing
d.
wall board
Ag Construction Test Bank for Web 2014
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: C PTS: 1
2. ANS: A PTS: 1
3. ANS: B PTS: 1
4. ANS: C PTS: 1
5. ANS: D PTS: 1
6. ANS: B PTS: 1
7. ANS: A PTS: 1
8. ANS: D PTS: 1
9. ANS: B PTS: 1
10. ANS: A PTS: 1
11. ANS: C PTS: 1
12. ANS: D PTS: 1
13. ANS: A PTS: 1
14. ANS: B PTS: 1
15. ANS: A PTS: 1
16. ANS: C PTS: 1
17. ANS: D PTS: 1
18. ANS: B PTS: 1
19. ANS: A PTS: 1
20. ANS: B PTS: 1
21. ANS: A PTS: 1
22. ANS: B PTS: 1
23. ANS: C PTS: 1
24. ANS: D PTS: 1
25. ANS: A PTS: 1
26. ANS: B PTS: 1
27. ANS: B PTS: 1
28. ANS: C PTS: 1
29. ANS: D PTS: 1
30. ANS: B PTS: 1
31. ANS: A PTS: 1
32. ANS: B PTS: 1
33. ANS: C PTS: 1
34. ANS: A PTS: 1
35. ANS: D PTS: 1
36. ANS: A PTS: 1
37. ANS: C PTS: 1
38. ANS: A PTS: 1
39. ANS: C PTS: 1
40. ANS: C PTS: 1
41. ANS: A PTS: 1
42. ANS: C PTS: 1
43. ANS: C PTS: 1
44. ANS: D PTS: 1
45. ANS: B PTS: 1
46. ANS: D PTS: 1
47. ANS: A PTS: 1
48. ANS: C PTS: 1
49. ANS: C PTS: 1
50. ANS: D PTS: 1
51. ANS: A PTS: 1
52. ANS: B PTS: 1
53. ANS: C PTS: 1
54. ANS: A PTS: 1
55. ANS: D PTS: 1
56. ANS: C PTS: 1
57. ANS: D PTS: 1
58. ANS: B PTS: 1
59. ANS: A PTS: 1
60. ANS: A PTS: 1
61. ANS: D PTS: 1
62. ANS: B PTS: 1
63. ANS: C PTS: 1
64. ANS: B PTS: 1
65. ANS: D PTS: 1
66. ANS: A PTS: 1
67. ANS: B PTS: 1
68. ANS: C PTS: 1
69. ANS: D PTS: 1
70. ANS: A PTS: 1
71. ANS: C PTS: 1
72. ANS: D PTS: 1
73. ANS: B PTS: 1
74. ANS: A PTS: 1
75. ANS: C PTS: 1
76. ANS: D PTS: 1
77. ANS: A PTS: 1
78. ANS: D PTS: 1
79. ANS: C PTS: 1
80. ANS: A PTS: 1
81. ANS: B PTS: 1
82. ANS: D PTS: 1
83. ANS: C PTS: 1
84. ANS: C PTS: 1
85. ANS: A PTS: 1
86. ANS: C PTS: 1
87. ANS: D PTS: 1
88. ANS: B PTS: 1
89. ANS: C PTS: 1
90. ANS: B PTS: 1
91. ANS: D PTS: 1
92. ANS: B PTS: 1
93. ANS: D PTS: 1
94. ANS: A PTS: 1
95. ANS: B PTS: 1
96. ANS: A PTS: 1
97. ANS: C PTS: 1
98. ANS: D PTS: 1
99. ANS: B PTS: 1
100. ANS: A PTS: 1
101. ANS: C PTS: 1
102. ANS: D PTS: 1
103. ANS: A PTS: 1
104. ANS: D PTS: 1
105. ANS: A PTS: 1
106. ANS: C PTS: 1
107. ANS: C PTS: 1
108. ANS: B PTS: 1
109. ANS: A PTS: 1
110. ANS: C PTS: 1
111. ANS: D PTS: 1
112. ANS: B PTS: 1
113. ANS: C PTS: 1
114. ANS: A PTS: 1
115. ANS: B PTS: 1
116. ANS: D PTS: 1
117. ANS: C PTS: 1
118. ANS: C PTS: 1
119. ANS: A PTS: 1
120. ANS: D PTS: 1
121. ANS: A PTS: 1
122. ANS: C PTS: 1
123. ANS: B PTS: 1
124. ANS: D PTS: 1
125. ANS: B PTS: 1
126. ANS: B PTS: 1
127. ANS: C PTS: 1
128. ANS: B PTS: 1
129. ANS: A PTS: 1
130. ANS: A PTS: 1
131. ANS: B PTS: 1
132. ANS: A PTS: 1
133. ANS: C PTS: 1
134. ANS: D PTS: 1
135. ANS: C PTS: 1
136. ANS: D PTS: 1
137. ANS: D PTS: 1
138. ANS: C PTS: 1
139. ANS: A PTS: 1
140. ANS: A PTS: 1
141. ANS: D PTS: 1
142. ANS: C PTS: 1
143. ANS: D PTS: 1
144. ANS: B PTS: 1
145. ANS: B PTS: 1
146. ANS: A PTS: 1
147. ANS: C PTS: 1
148. ANS: A PTS: 1
149. ANS: A PTS: 1
150. ANS: D PTS: 1
151. ANS: B PTS: 1
152. ANS: B PTS: 1
153. ANS: A PTS: 1
154. ANS: C PTS: 1
155. ANS: B PTS: 1
156. ANS: D PTS: 1
157. ANS: D PTS: 1
158. ANS: D PTS: 1
159. ANS: B PTS: 1
160. ANS: C PTS: 1
161. ANS: C PTS: 1
162. ANS: A PTS: 1
163. ANS: D PTS: 1
164. ANS: A PTS: 1
165. ANS: A PTS: 1
166. ANS: B PTS: 1
167. ANS: C PTS: 1
168. ANS: B PTS: 1
169. ANS: A PTS: 1
170. ANS: D PTS: 1
171. ANS: D PTS: 1
172. ANS: D PTS: 1
173. ANS: A PTS: 1
174. ANS: B PTS: 1
175. ANS: B PTS: 1
176. ANS: C PTS: 1
177. ANS: D PTS: 1
178. ANS: D PTS: 1
179. ANS: C PTS: 1
180. ANS: B PTS: 1
181. ANS: A PTS: 1
182. ANS: D PTS: 1
183. ANS: A PTS: 1
184. ANS: D PTS: 1
185. ANS: B PTS: 1
186. ANS: D PTS: 1
187. ANS: C PTS: 1
188. ANS: B PTS: 1
189. ANS: D PTS: 1
190. ANS: C PTS: 1
191. ANS: D PTS: 1
192. ANS: B PTS: 1
193. ANS: C PTS: 1
194. ANS: A PTS: 1
195. ANS: A PTS: 1
196. ANS: A PTS: 1
197. ANS: B PTS: 1
198. ANS: C PTS: 1
199. ANS: A PTS: 1
200. ANS: D PTS: 1
201. ANS: C PTS: 1
202. ANS: B PTS: 1
203. ANS: D PTS: 1
204. ANS: C PTS: 1
205. ANS: D PTS: 1
206. ANS: A PTS: 1
207. ANS: A PTS: 1
208. ANS: C PTS: 1
209. ANS: B PTS: 1
210. ANS: C PTS: 1
211. ANS: D PTS: 1
212. ANS: D PTS: 1
213. ANS: C PTS: 1
214. ANS: C PTS: 1
215. ANS: A PTS: 1
216. ANS: A PTS: 1
217. ANS: B PTS: 1
218. ANS: C PTS: 1
219. ANS: D PTS: 1
220. ANS: C PTS: 1
221. ANS: B PTS: 1
222. ANS: D PTS: 1
223. ANS: D PTS: 1
224. ANS: A PTS: 1
225. ANS: B PTS: 1
226. ANS: A PTS: 1
227. ANS: C PTS: 1
228. ANS: D PTS: 1
229. ANS: C PTS: 1
230. ANS: B PTS: 1
231. ANS: A PTS: 1
232. ANS: B PTS: 1
233. ANS: A PTS: 1
234. ANS: C PTS: 1
235. ANS: B PTS: 1
236. ANS: C PTS: 1
237. ANS: B PTS: 1
238. ANS: A PTS: 1
239. ANS: B PTS: 1
240. ANS: D PTS: 1
241. ANS: D PTS: 1
242. ANS: C PTS: 1
243. ANS: A PTS: 1
244. ANS: B PTS: 1
245. ANS: C PTS: 1
246. ANS: C PTS: 1
247. ANS: A PTS: 1
248. ANS: D PTS: 1
249. ANS: C PTS: 1
250. ANS: B PTS: 1